I have read it again and my initial impression was confirmed. This is a very narrow definition of what the writer seeks to consider as a "white" culture and it fails on several levels.

Firstly it only addresses the USA. Now I realise that for many Americans the world doesn't exist anywhere beyond their own county line, let alone outside the USA, but come on, we know better. Even though within the USA it's impossible to claim that a Trump supporter and Biden supporter, both with the same skin colour, share a culture. They share aspects, but they also share some with people who have different skin colours.

Extend that elsewhere and it's impossible to suggest that Fins, Danes, Swedes, Germans, French, Brits, etc share a culture. Go further and include some Russians and the idea becomes even less appealing. What about the Spanish and the Italians. Do they qualify? Then look at the Greeks and Turks. Not much culture sharing there. If you don't include the latter countries what does that say about the very attempt to define people by their skin colour? Are we back to considering whether people are Aryan or not? I hope not.

For the avoidance of doubt any comments in response to a previous post are directed to its ideas and not at any, or all, posters personally.

Doesn't it make you both clowns?

Did you know? 98.0000001% of people are morons.

I'd accept it. Because it would therefore have to be based on actual, credible and verifiable evidence, plus a ruling by the court system.

Not accepting that outcome is ultimately as stupid as believing in unproven hearsay in the first place.

Did you know? 98.0000001% of people are morons.

If anything, voter fraud will favour Biden even more, as Trump denied the vote to people less likely to vote for him.

That model is being copied by the conservative party here.

You cannot actually make any impact impersonating anyone, it is only one vote, anything more would have to involve hundreds if not thousands.

But you can if you deny your opponents their right to vote in the first place.

Indeed. It was a hypothetical question, as ain’t going to happen

Despite rumours to the contrary, I wasn't around in the 1930s but from all I know the theories on Aryan supremacy had been promoted by a variety of people for a while, and were widely accepted among certain groups. Not all of whom were German. That these theories came to prominence in the 1930s and caused the consequences they did are matters of historical record. A record I trust none of us wishes to see repeated.

For the avoidance of doubt any comments in response to a previous post are directed to its ideas and not at any, or all, posters personally.